The reason is that the GPL is incompatible with the Motion Picture Experts Group License Authority's (MPEG LA) license of the MPEG-4 patents. They of course grant a patent license for the licensee only, where as the GPLv2, and even more so with v3, grants a patent license for everybody who receives the software.
I believe i misread this the first few times. I'm still not sure how you get a YES to my original question. Given what you said, that the GPL is incompatible with the MPEGLA license, that would mean you could not legally distribute x264 under the GPL in countries that recognize the MPEG patents.
I poised this question to Drew last night and he gave me some insight I did not consider. He said that it is quite possible that distributing x264 in the US (or other countries that recognize said patents) would violate the patents or IP of the holder; but it comes down to whether said violation would:
- Be worth it to prosecute
Be prosecutable
That is, if x246 is violating the MPEG4 patents then the MPEGLA would have to determine whether it would be financially sound to file a suit in conjunction with considering the prospects that the suit would return a favorable outcome. Since x264 is not making any significant amount of money from this technology, it would be a costly suit for MPEGLA to engage given that there would be very little return.
Now if RedHat started distributing the x264 software then it might be feasible for the MPEGLA to go after RedHat for patent violations.
It all sounds like a big game that one could go along with for years before becoming a victim of a suit. The MPEGLA could never file suit or contest but down line say RedHat starts making a lot of money. The MPEGLA could eventually come after them for infringement if they were distributing x264 libraries. Stuff like this makes it a legal minefield; very confusing.
I'm not even sure I understand it completely. That's why patents must go!
Now as for Open Standards, again; while this quote provides some insight:
"Many definitions of the term "standard" permit patent holders to impose "reasonable and non-discriminatory" royalty fees and other licensing terms on implementers and/or users of the standard. For example, the rules for standards published by the major internationally recognized standards bodies such as the IETF[2], ISO, and IEC permit their Standards to contain specifications whose implementation will require payment of patent licensing fees (none of these organizations states that they grant "open standards", but only "standards"). ITU has a definition of "open standard" that allows "reasonable and non-discriminatory" licensing."
That seems more to define the ISO or ITU definition of a standard, not an open standard. How can a standard be considered "open" if it is encumbered by patent and ip restrictions? Let's say OOXML passes ISO standardization. I have heard people say this will make OOXML and open standard. But if there are patent and IP restrictions in place, how can this be considered open? This technology could not be included in OpenOffice without some company paying the licensing/royalty fees to Microsoft (which I guess Novell, Xandros, and Linspire did). Yet how is this open when compared to ODF? It's not. So why does it get labeld, along with MPEG4, as an open standard?